A thought occurred to me this evening as I was studying the Annunciation (that would be the Annunciation of the Incarnation). I don’t know if it is a good question. Here is the relevant material.
1. CCC 485: The mission of the Holy Spirit is always conjoined and ordered to that of the Son.122 The Holy Spirit, “the Lord, the giver of Life”, is sent to sanctify the womb of the Virgin Mary and divinely fecundate it, causing her to conceive the eternal Son of the Father in a humanity drawn from her own.
2. Matthew 1:1-17 1 The book of the generation of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham: 2 Abraham begot Isaac. And Isaac begot Jacob. And Jacob begot [and so on with the begets – second question, has anyone ever read through the beget sequences of the Bible?]
Here is the question. A woman provides the egg, the man the sperm. Of course, the CCC says “divinely fecundate” so we can assume sperm wasn’t literally used. But the point is it certainly leaves Joseph off the table as contributor. Why then, have a genealogy for Christ on the male side? Would it not make more sense, if one were to have a genealogy at all, to have Mary’s ancestry here instead?
I haven’t really delved into any obscure Christology, but I guess an argument could be constructed as follows. The Holy Spirit, in fecundating Mary, divinely provided (at least some) DNA from Joseph’s lineage.
Otherwise I see no reason for the lineage of Joseph if he had no part of himself in Jesus. Or, I suppose, as an adopted son could be interested in the genealogy of his adopted family, so too could this be thought as.
The last stage of the begets ends differently than all the preceding ones.
16 And Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.
It seems to me it can be considered a genealogy of the adoptive father.